I don’t get it: Where the law says “unnatural”, “against nature”, or whatever, how come the defence doesn’t claim that “homosexual conduct” is pefectly natural (ie happens in nature) and thus demonstrate that no law was broken?
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Boycot India! Everybody knows that the ban on gays is being used by corrupt police officers in India to get money out of gay people. Disgusting!
I don’t get it: Where the law says “unnatural”, “against nature”, or whatever, how come the defence doesn’t claim that “homosexual conduct” is pefectly natural (ie happens in nature) and thus demonstrate that no law was broken?